Lieberman and Darchei Shalom
Someone I know, I think male, told me a story:
A non-jewish person asked R.D. Shaul Lieberman if he was troubled that certain laws are only "because of darkei* shalom." Lieberman answered yes, he was troubled. Later, he told his studnets, "I only said that because of darkei shalom."
Has anyone heard of this story? (It doesn't have to be Lieberman, btw...) A popos of a paer i am writing, does anyone have a source?
*On the topic (sort of, except to the extent the new topic is really grammar...), is it darKei shalom ir darKHei shalom? Mishlei 3:17 (darchei noam) is without a dagesh, by analogy i would imagine D.Shalom would be too. But a quick google survey indicates that people i trust to actually know grammar** are morelikely to use "darkei." thoughts from someone who actually knows something?
**irony intentional
Labels: pedantic about grammar